Maths-
General
Easy
Question
Let R be a relation from N-N defined by R= { (a,b) : a, b belong to N and a= b2 }.Are the following true ?
a) (a,a) ∈R , for all a ∈N
b) (a,b) ∈R implies (b,a) ∈R
c) (a,b) ∈R , (b,c) ∈R implies (a,c) ∈R
Justify your answer in each case.
The correct answer is: statement is wrong.
R is relation from N to N defined by R = { (a, b) : a, b belong to N and a= b2 }.
We will consider all the given cases
i) It is not true because a = a2
a2-a = 0
a(a-1) = 0
a = 0 ,1
Hence the given condition is only true for a = 1
Not for all natural numbers.
ii) It is not true because if a = b2 , then b = a2 is not possible
Eg. 32 = 9 but 92 > 3
iii) It is not true because
If then
It means a = b2 and b = c2 , a = c2
This means a = (c2)2 = c4
But a = c2
So the given statement is wrong.
Hence the given condition is only true for a = 1
Not for all natural numbers.
ii) It is not true because if a = b2 , then b = a2 is not possible
iii) It is not true because
If then
It means a = b2 and b = c2 , a = c2
This means a = (c2)2 = c4
So the given statement is wrong.
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