Physics-
General
Easy
Question
A ball rolls down an inclined plane and acquires a velocity vr when it reaches the bottom of the plane. If the same ball slides without friction rather than rolling from the same height down an equally inclined smooth plane and acquires a velocity vs, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- vr < vs, because a work is done by the rolling ball against the frictional force
- vr > vs, because the angular velocity makes the rolling ball to travel faster
- vr = vs, because kinetic energy of two balls is same at bottom of planes
- vr < vs, because the rolling ball acquires
The correct answer is: vr < vs, because the rolling ball acquires
well translational KE
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