Maths-
General
Easy
Question
In [0, 1] Lagranges Mean value theorem is NOT applicable to
The correct answer is:
For Lagrange’s Mean value theorem we know, should be continuous in [a, b] and differentiable in] a, b [.
Which is clearly not differentiable at at LHD at Lagrange’s Mean Value is not applicable.
Where option, (b), (c), (d) are continuous and differentiable.
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